1. All men are resurrected: Jn 5:28; Mt 25; Rev 20:12-15
2. The devil, demons and evil men all go to the same place: Rev 20:12-15
3. Resurrection for all men brings about immortality: physical death is abolished 1 Cor 15

#1 John 5:28 outright states all in the tombs will be raised at the same moment

#2 2 Thess 1:5-8 Outright states that those who do not know the gospel will suffer at the second coming.

#3 Acts 17:30-31 God does not exempt the ignorant from the final resurrection and judgement.

#4 Romans 2:9-16 Outright says that those without law will be judged at the last day by Christ

#5 Jeremiah 25:17-18, 26-28 The people of Jerusalem would "fall and rise and no more". (Same language Christadelphians use to in other verses to prove no resurrection)

#6 Prov 2:18-19; 7:14, 25-27 For those Christadelphians who say that only Jews who have offered an animal sacrifice will be raised from the dead, consider the Jewish adulteress: "I was due to offer peace offerings; Today I have paid my vows. ... Her house is the way to Sheol, Descending to the chambers of death. ... None who go to her return again, Nor do they reach the paths of life."

1. All Christadelphians teach that wicked men who never heard the gospel will never be raised. (ignorance is bliss; babies and pigmies in Africa will not be raised) In fact the Bible teaches the exact opposite: "Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all everywhere should repent, because He has fixed a day in which He will judge the world Acts 17:30-31. God no longer overlooks ignorance of never hearing the gospel, all will be judged, even the ignorant!
2. All Christadelphians teach that baptized disciples who fall away will be raised. (seed that fell upon rocky or weedy soil)
3. Historically since early 1800's, Christadelphians (same as today's unamended) taught that all unbaptized will never be raised, even if they knew they needed to be baptized and refused or delayed.
4. Some modern Christadelphians (the amended) teach that a wicked man will not be subject to resurrection until he hears about his need for baptism once and rejects it. (seed that fell upon the pavement) Wicked men will not be subject to resurrection and torment until a Christadelphian spends 5 minutes and tells them about baptism. The moment they hear about baptism, they are now put on God's "to be resurrected list".
5. The wicked who never hear the gospel suffer exactly the same "punishment" as the righteous: physical death.

1. Torment and suffering of the wicked is the sign of God's righteous judgement v5
2. If some evil men are never raised they escape torment and suffering and God is not just v6 (all evil men must be raised to suffer torment of some kind, whether eternal or temporary. Christadelphians maintain that most evil men will die without suffering torment at the second coming.
3. Angels are supernatural spirit beings: v7
4. This torment and suffering happens at the second coming, after they have died and been raised v7,9
5. The wicked will get retribution (eye for eye) for their evil: v8 In the Christadelphian view, the wicked who never hear the gospel suffer exactly the same "punishment" as the righteous: physical death.
6. Contrary to the resurrection teaching of all Christadelphians, those who never heard the gospel and those who knew but refused to obey the gospel, will be raised and punished. V8
7. The wicked will be penalized with conscious banishment away from presence and power. v9

 B. Bible passages:

1. "But when the Son of Man comes in His glory, and all the angels with Him, then He will sit on His glorious throne. 32 "And all the nations will be gathered before Him; and He will separate them from one another, as the shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. Mt 25
2. For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, that each one may be recompensed for his deeds in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad. 2 Corinthians 5:10
3. And I saw the dead, the great and the small, standing before the throne, and books were opened; and another book was opened, which is the book of life; and the dead were judged from the things which were written in the books, according to their deeds. 13 And the sea gave up the dead which were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead which were in them; and they were judged, every one of them according to their deeds. 14 And death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. This is the second death, the lake of fire. 15 And if anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire. Rev 20:12-15
4. "Behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to render to every man according to what he has done. 13 "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end." Rev 22:12
5. "Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all everywhere should repent, 31 because He has fixed a day in which He will judge the world Acts 17:30
6. "Truly I say to you, it will be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrah in the day of judgment, than for that city. Matthew 10:15
7. But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God, 6 who will render to every man according to his deeds: Romans 2:5-7

1. Angels reserved in pit: Jude 6 "And angels who did not keep their own domain, but abandoned their proper abode, He has kept in eternal bonds under darkness for the judgment of the great day."
2. 2 Peter 2:9 then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment. (see Luke 16)

1. Christadelphians say that the dead do not exist, since they reject conscious life after death.
2. What is interesting about this verse is that the living and dead are congratulated in contrast with the man who has never existed. According to Christadelphian doctrine both the dead and the one never born never existed.
3. Remember the context is strictly the relief one can attain from seeing the sin and evil that is in the world. Since Christadelphians reject conscious life after death, neither the one's who will be raised or the one's who will never be raised, will ever see the corruption of sin on earth again.
4. The passage clearly says that the one who never existed is better off than the one who is dead. Yet according to Christadelphians, when most the earth's population die, they will never exist again because they will never be raised!
5. The Christadelphian doctrine make nonsense of this verse.

1. The text flat out states universally that both Jews and Gentiles will be judged
2. It is qualified to say, "every soul of man who does evil". Christadelphians actually teach that a Gentile who murders, but never read the Bible, is not guilty of sin. (see below: John 9:41 below) Further v 12 flat says those "without law" have indeed sinned.
3. The text says in v 14 that Gentiles instinctively know right from wrong based upon the conscious and are under a law of their own which they keep. There is a universal law of morality in the world that every culture clearly understands. (lying, stealing, adultery etc.)
4. Finally v 16 says that these "ignorant Gentiles, who had never heard about God's law WOULD BE JUDGED by Christ.

1. The context is clearly Babylon who will "not wake up" from sleep so it does fit the Christadelphian interpretation to prove that Gentiles will not be raised from the dead but will "sleep forever". But to force bodily resurrection into the passage is simply too far fetched when a much simpler and natural interpretation is available: Just like we use the expression, "He went to sleep and never woke up" to denote a common death in bed, so too Jeremiah uses exactly the same kind of expression. To "sleep a perpetual sleep and not wake up," means that they will die.
2. Resurrection is not part of the context in any way at all.
3. Sheol and the grave are not only absent from the text, but not needed for the point Jeremiah was making, namely that God would physically kill the Babylonians.
4. Further, the context is the "cup of God's wrath" is used elsewhere in Jeremiah: (And echoed in Revelation) Notice the expressions "sleep and not wake up" (Jer 51:39) and " be drunk, vomit, fall and rise no more" (Jer 25:27) mean nothing more than to die physically. Notice also that Jerusalem was to also drink this cup from which, "They would rise no more". So according to Christadelphian logic not even Israel would be raised from the dead, since the identical type of language was used.

• Jeremiah 25:15-18, 26-28 For thus the Lord, the God of Israel, says to me, "Take this cup of the wine of wrath from My hand, and cause all the nations, to whom I send you, to drink it. 16 "And they shall drink and stagger and go mad because of the sword that I will send among them." 17 Then I took the cup from the Lord's hand, and made all the nations drink, to whom the Lord sent me: 18 JERUSALEM AND THE CITIES OF JUDAH, and its kings and its princes, to make them a ruin, a horror, a hissing, and a curse, as it is this day; ... 26 and all the kings of the north, near and far, one with another; and all the kingdoms of the earth which are upon the face of the ground, and the king of Sheshach shall drink after them. "And you shall say to them, 'Thus says the Lord of hosts, the God of Israel, "Drink, be drunk, vomit, fall, and rise no more because of the sword which I will send among you."' 28 "And it will be, if they refuse to take the cup from your hand to drink, then you will say to them, 'Thus says the Lord of hosts: "You shall surely drink!
• Jeremiah 49:12 "For thus says the Lord, "Behold, those who were not sentenced to drink the cup will certainly drink it, and are you the one who will be completely acquitted? You will not be acquitted, but you will certainly drink it.".

1. Ps 49:10 says that, throughout world, the "wise, stupid and senseless alike perish and leave their wealth to others." If Christadelphians try to say that only the wicked "perish", they must not only deal with the many Bible verses to the contrary that say the righteous and wicked perish alike, but Ps 49 itself! In Job 29:13, Job had rescued a poor righteous widow from perishing: "The blessing of the one ready to perish came upon me, And I made the widow's heart sing for joy." This is the same way the word perish is used in Ps 49... simply physical death.
2. Ps 49 is closely parallel to the theme of Ecclesiastes 2:16-18; 3:19-21. Christadelphians want infer into the text with their imagination that the wicked are appointed like sheep to Sheol and death but the righteous are not. Problem is that this Ps 49 is really saying that the wicked will die prematurely but the righteous, God will rescue from premature death. While we openly admit that the God will redeem the righteous from death at the last day, (Hosea 13:14) this is not the meaning of expression here. Rather Job 33:18,28 is again exactly parallel in thought that the righteous can live longer on earth than if they were wicked, thus be redeemed from sheol. Job 33:14 captures this thought perfectly by saying that the righteous will not die physically as soon as the wicked and shall rule over the wicked in the light of the next morning. Remember, the context of Job 33 is that God had ALREADY redeemed Job's soul from the pit/sheol and he was "seeing the light of life", BEFORE he died physically. This completely nullifies the Christadelphian interpretation that v 19 ("the wicked will die and never see the light.") means the wicked will not be part of the resurrection of the last day. What this verse means is simply that the wicked will died and never see the light of truth while they live or as the next verse says, are without understanding. That the wicked never see the light before they die is a common Bible teaching: "the Gentiles also walk, in the futility of their mind, 18 being darkened in their understanding". Eph 4:17-18. This is the meaning of the text.
3. But even if we grant for the sake of argument that "never see the light" meant after the wicked die they will never be raised to see light again, Jesus said of the wicked Jews who will be raised, "the sons of the kingdom shall be cast out into the outer darkness; in that place there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth." Mt 8:12 So even if Christadelphians force the expression into eternity, Jesus applied the same figure of those WHO WOULD BE RAISED but cast into a place where, "they would never see the light".
4. Now here is one of the most amazing dilemma's Christadelphians must face. Not only do we find the text of Ps 49 saying that the wise and stupid perish alike, but Christadelphians have blissfully overlooked the fact that the whole Psalm is addressed to INCLUDE JEWS under David's kingdom. Remember, according to Christadelphian theology, all covenant Jews (circumcised) both wicked and righteous are subject to resurrection. There are only two ways Ps 49 is helpful to Christadelphians: 1. If they adopt a new position that NO WICKED will be raised. 2. Try to prove the scope of Ps 49 is a contrast of wicked rich Gentiles (who won't be raised) and poor covenant Jews (who will be raised) and that the Psalm must therefore exclude rich Jews (who will be raised) and poor Gentiles (who won't be raised). Any attempt to do such will cast one spiraling into a dizzying mess of confusion.
5. In conclusion, when Ps 49 is taken at face value to be a contrast between the wicked rich and the righteous poor the world over, the message clearly supports our truth and obliterates Christadelphian theology.

1. Of all the proof texts Christadelphians use to prove that the ignorant Gentiles, babies and faithless Jews will not be raised, Isa 26:13-14 + 19 is the only serious one that needs to be addressed. It does have opposite statements, first that the dead will not rise v14 and second that the dead will rise v19. On the surface at least, given the appropriate Christadelphian "reading into the verse", their interpretation is possible. But we are reminded that this is the only direct possible verse they have to support their theory of selective resurrection. So let us examine what the text is saying in an honest and objective manner.
2. Isa 26:13-14 + 19 is a difficult and disputed text that many have varying opinions interpreting. Men differ in their answers to: 1. Are there two different categories of men or does the verse speak universally of all humanity? Who are the different groups of men. Why do some rise and others not? Is this speaking of the last day resurrection, the spiritual resurrection ("Awake sleeper, and arise from the dead and Christ will shine on you" Eph 5:14) or a symbolic resurrection that took place when Israel was restored from Babylonian captivity (see Ezek 37).
3. We believe that the Christadelphians are making the same kind of error that the Mormons do in their interpretation of another difficult passage. "Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?" 1 Cor 15:29 Mormons alone use this text as proof that living Mormons should be literally baptized on behalf of their dead relatives. Christadelphians interpretation of Isa 29:14 is in the same category as the Mormon view of 1 Cor 15:29. We may not be sure what these texts are saying, but we can be sure what they are not saying. Just as the Mormon view of 1 Cor 15:29 violates the well established principle that our eternal fate is sealed when we die (Heb 9:27) so too the Christadelphian view of Isa 29:14 violates the principle of universal resurrection. (Jn 5:28; Acts 24:15)
4. We notice that the expression "wiped out all remembrance of them" v14, is used by Christadelphians to support the notion that those not raised from the dead will be forgotten forever. Yet Eccl 2:16 says the same thing in general terms of both the good and bad: "For there is no lasting remembrance of the wise man as with the fool, inasmuch as in the coming days all will be forgotten. And how the wise man and the fool alike die!" Neither text is saying that God forgets the wicked, but that those on the earth "under the sun" are forgotten by the living generations who succeed them. This thought is also found in Eccl 9:5-10, yet Christadelphians do not read selective resurrection into that text!
5. Ezek 37 is generally recognized as a spiritual resurrection that took place at the return from Babylonian captivity: "11 "Son of man, these bones are the whole house of Israel; behold, they say, 'Our bones are dried up, and our hope has perished. We are completely cut off.' 12 "Therefore prophesy, and say to them, 'Thus says the Lord God, "Behold, I will open your graves and cause you to come up out of your graves, My people; and I will bring you into the land of Israel." Ezek 37
6. Our interpretation of the passage: We take the view that both resurrections, although sounding like a physical resurrection, are spiritual resurrections like the spiritual resurrection when Israel returned from Babylonian exile in Ezek 37. There is a curious parallel between Isa 26:14+19 and Rev 20:5+6. Hence Isa 26 is being continuously fulfilled in Christ starting from the cross through the second coming. The enemies of God will not become Christians by being born again, rising to walk in newness of Christ through faith and baptism. God's people will respond to the gospel of Christ and although dead in sin, will be raised at baptism from the dead as it were. This concept is indisputably taught in the New Testament. So we merely suggest that this is what Isa 26 was prophetically referring to. Of course death is always defined as a separation between two things. Physical death is a separation of body and soul. Spiritual death the separation of God and man. First, graphically in the Garden of Eden when Adam died spiritually (cast away from God's presence outside Eden). Then thereafter our sins separate us from God (Isa 59:1-2) Since Isa 59:1-2 is the primary place to define "spiritual death" it should not surprise us that Isa 26 uses the concept. Spiritual life, is being united with God. Hence the second death or hell is not non-existence, but being cast away from God's presence in the figure of a banishment. This explains how the wicked do not come to spiritual life in Rev 20:5 until the last day when they stand before God IN HIS PRESENCE (spiritual life = no separation between God and man) but only for a moment when they are eternally separated from God's presence. (Second death) To support the view that Isa 26 is messianic and fulfilled in the cross, the section before and after (Isa 26:1; 27:1) start with the expression, "in that day", which always indicates messianic fulfillment starting with the first advent of Christ and thereafter.

1. First, we notice that Christadelphians cannot use this verse to prove "Ignorant Gentile unbelievers" will never be raised from he dead because this is Jew who "wanders from the way of understanding". This man, according to Christadelphian theology, is already subject to resurrection and judgement. We love watching Christadelphians do the big flip flop when we point this fact out. Before we point out that it is a "backsliden Jew" they say "rest in the assembly of the dead" means they will never be raised. After we point this out they say "rest in the assembly of the dead" DOESN'T necessarily mean they will never be raised ... and in this verse it certainly doesn't. Well, we agree!
2. Second we notice that other verses that apply to Covenant Jews say exactly the same thing: Notice the Jewish Adulteress had offered her "peace offerings and paid her vows" according to the Law of Moses. The woman of Prov 7 is clearly rebellious to God's law and is subject to resurrection. Proverbs 2 and 7 are much more powerful than 21, in teaching the wicked ignorant dead will never be raised, but no Christadelphian will touch these verses as proof texts! Prov 7 not only says her tracks lead to death, but that "none return again or reach life". Christadelphians only wish to God this kind of language had been used in Proverbs 21:16.

• The Jewish adulteress: ""I was due to offer peace offerings; Today I have paid my vows." ... "Do not let your heart turn aside to her ways, Do not stray into her paths. 26 For many are the victims she has cast down, And numerous are all her slain. 27 Her house is the way to Sheol, Descending to the chambers of death. Prov 7:14, 25-27 "For her house sinks down to death, And her tracks lead to the dead; 19 None who go to her return again, Nor do they reach the paths of life." Prov 2:18-19
• The Jewish thief: "Stolen water is sweet; And bread eaten in secret is pleasant." 18 But he does not know that the dead are there, That her guests are in the depths of Sheol. Prov 9:17-18

1. Christadelphians use Job 10:18-22 as a proof text that babies will not be raised from the dead. Yet notice what Job says about himself! He knew God (and was therefore subject resurrection) yet he said, "Before I go—and I shall not return." It is important to notice that starting in v 20, Job stops speaking about "If I was miscarried" and starts talking about his ACTUAL situation. Paraphrasing v20-21, Job says, "my days are short enough as it is, leave me alone, let me have a little happiness, I will die soon enough and not return!" If babies were not subject to resurrection, Job didn't know anything about it because he says, "Carried from womb to tomb" is the same destiny as he who "Before I go—and I shall not return". Again when we point this out to Christadelphians, they suddenly do the flip flop. Before we point out the fact that Job, (who is subject to resurrection) said of himself "I shall not return" is his actual present state and not like miscarried babies, Christadelphians say the expression proves babies will never be resurrected. After we point out the fact that Job ceases using the "miscarried baby" figure in v 20, Christadelphians flip flop and say the expression doesn't necessarily imply no resurrection... and certainly not in this verse. We agree!
2. But even more telling is that King David said the same thing in 2 Samuel 12:22-23 "And he said, "While the child was still alive, I fasted and wept; for I said, 'Who knows, the Lord may be gracious to me, that the child may live.' 23 "But now he has died; why should I fast? Can I bring him back again? I shall go to him, but he will not return to me."" So both David and Job said they would die and be in the same place babies are. Same destiny: all subject to resurrection and judgement.
3. The truth is that miscarried babies are saved because they have done no evil. That is why Jesus said, "Hinder not the babies, for such as these are in the kingdom of God." Luke 18:15 Well not according to Christadelphians! They say babies won't even be raised from the dead!

1. Babies
2. Wicked who raged and Righteous oppressed weary
3. Righteous Prisoners and their evil Taskmasters
4. Small and great (both righteous and wicked)
5. Slave and masters

Christadelphians say, "It requires the light of knowledge to make men responsible; for so it is written: "This is the (ground of) condemnation, that light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light" (John 3:19)."

1. Regarding John 3:19, we are immediately struck that Christadelphians view the gospel light as "condemning the ignorant" rather than "saving the lost".
2. Of course the light of Jesus was sent ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF ISREAL, all of whom are subject to resurrection even before Jesus came along! So John 3:19 certainly cannot be used to show that ignorant Gentiles will not be raised, when those on whom the judgement of light was shining were already going to be raised before the light shone on them. Jesus said this to Nicodemus who was not only a covenant Jew, but a teacher of Israel.
3. We know Christadelphians would say that after the cross, when the law of Moses was formally abolished, that all adherents to the Jewish religion, who had not been baptized into Christ, are no longer subject to resurrection. Although such a view is outrageous, it is at least consistent within a framework of Christadelphian logic. But exactly when were covenant Jews no longer subject to resurrection? The logical place would be the cross since Jesus lived and died under the Old Testament law of Moses: Gal 4:4. At the birth of Christ? When he actually started preaching the "Light of the gospel judgement?" Are Christadelphians willing to say that all covenant Jews were subject to resurrection UNTIL Christ started teaching? Or was it when we was born? If so then Christadelphians are forced into the most unenviable position of having to say that Nicodemus, would be first subject to resurrection, then when Jesus started preaching the Light of the gospel in 27 AD, Nicodemus would no longer be subject to resurrection. But then when Jesus finally got around to preaching the "condemning gospel" to Nicodemus, he was again suddenly subject to resurrection again!
4. This on-again; off-again; on-again scenario is a real problem for Christadelphians and is part of the reason the amended and unamended take different positions on exactly when and if Nicodemus was subject to resurrection. (The amended say Nicodemus walked away from Jesus subject to resurrection. The unamended say he walked away not subject to resurrection unless he was baptized.) In fact John 3:19 creates so many problems for Christadelphians, we wonder why they would ever bother even trying to use it as a proof text!
5. The fact is that Nicodemus was a covenant Jew his whole life and by all standard Christadelphian definitions would be subject to resurrection. The constant modifications and exceptions Christadelphians are forced to make is evidence enough their whole theology is wrong.
6. When the very concept Christadelphians say is central to the text does not even apply to the very one Jesus said it to (Nicodemus), we can be sure their interpretation is wrong. Remember, Christadelphians say the principle taught in John 3:19 is that men are not accountable to resurrection and judgement until the "light of the gospel" is preached to them. Yet Nicodemus was subject to judgement before and after the light of the gospel was preached to him. So we can be sure that the text cannot teach what Christadelphians say it does.

Christadelphians actually say: "When men are blind, or ignorant of the word, they have no sin to be punished for: but at the same time, they are not forgiven and justified men, and unless they become so by learning and repenting, they cannot be saved for eternal life (John 9:41).

1. Jesus was clearly using a play on words in John 9:41. The Pharisees claimed the man was born blind because of sin. Jesus said blind people are not sinners. Yet when you analyze this Jesus is not saying the man born blind was not a sinner himself, just that his parents or own sin did not cause the blindness. No one would question that both the man and his parents were sinners. After all they were Jews living under the Law of Moses and "subject to resurrection". The only question is did this sin cause the blindness and the answer is no. So when Jesus turns this on the Pharisees and says if you were blind you would have no sin, He was not saying they were sinless, but that they were not guilty of the specific sin of rejecting his miracles.
2. What Jesus means by the expression, "if you were blind you would have no sin", is the same as John 15:22. Had Jesus not come along, the Pharisees were sinners under the Law of Moses, but were not guilty of the specific sin of rejecting God's messiah. John 9 is just like John 8, where Jesus said to the Pharisees, "He who is without sin cast the first stone." All admit that Jesus is not asking if any present HAD NEVER SINNED, but if any present were not guilty of the a specific sin by condemning the woman caught in adultery. So the "you would have no sin" of John 9 is a specific sin just like the "He who is without sin" of John 8. The Christadelphian imagination is running wild to suggest the passage teaches that the ignorant are not sinners before God.
3. If spiritually blind, according to Christadelphians, means not accountable or subject to resurrection and judgement, then those "covenant Jews" who hear the gospel light and reject it are no longer accountable or subject to resurrection. Jesus said "they which see might made blind". Notice the expression "they which see might made blind" Jesus applied to the Pharisees. This is EXACTLY OPPOSITE to what Christadelphians say is the purpose of the gospel. It is obvious that there is a play on words with "blindness and seeing" and a crossing over from physical sight to spiritual sight. But no matter how we take this expression, it hurts the Christadelphians.

they which physically see might made physically blind	All agree, this is not likely what Jesus had in mind
they which spiritually see might made physically blind	Notice the Pharisees already had spiritual sight and therefore, according to Christadelphian theology are subject to resurrection.
"they which physically see might made spiritually blind"	Notice the Pharisees already had spiritual sight before Jesus spoke to them after which they became spiritually blind. Therefore, according to Christadelphian theology are subject to resurrection before Jesus spoke to them.
"they which spiritually see might made spiritually blind"	Same as above, the Pharisees had spiritual sight before Jesus spoke to them and were subject to resurrection.

4. "Jesus said unto them 'If you were blind, you would have no sin; but since you say, 'We see,' your sin remains.'" (John 9:41). In the Christadelphian way of thinking, a person is blind who has not heard the gospel light and can see if they have heard the gospel light. Yet the Pharisees before Jesus came along had not heard the gospel light of Jesus and would therefore be "blind". This is inferred by the context based upon Christadelphian reasoning. So the very Pharisees that stood before Jesus were at one point in their life, "blind" and therefore not subject to resurrection. Again this contradicts Christadelphian theology.
5. The passage is being taken out of context by Christadelphians. Jesus said, For judgment I am come into this world, that they which see not might see; and they which see might made blind. And some of the Pharisees which were with him heard these words, and said unto him, Are we blind also? Jesus said unto him, if ye were blind, ye should have no sin: but now ye say, We see; therefore your sin remaineth." In verse 41 Jesus teaches the Pharisees that being born blind is not because of sin such as the case with the healed blind man. He then tells the Pharisees who think they "see" the righteousness of God but denying Jesus, caused them to be blind. Therefore their sin remaineth. This scripture has nothing to do with being ignorant of the will of God and not facing judgment. There are two types of blindness mentioned in the bible, the physical blindness and the spiritual blindness. The man born blind did not sin in the womb to cause his blindness. The Pharisees on the other hand refused this teaching and accused Jesus of being a sinner. And because of this refusal, their sin remained within them. (Jack Wise, Jr.)

1. Christadelphians simply cannot use this verse to prove that those ignorant of God's law are not subject to resurrection. It has again escaped their notice that Jesus was talking to covenant Jews who were already going to be raised BEFORE Jesus spoke to them and preformed His works. So here are Covenant Jews who "had no sin" yet were going to be raised either way! The sin Jesus is referring to is the specific sin of rejecting Him and his message and has nothing to do with overall accountability of sin in judgement.
2. It is a strange doctrine indeed that would suggest that Jews, under the Law of Moses, were not counted sinners until Jesus did his miracles among them and they rejected Him.
3. If Jesus was talking to or about Gentiles, then Christadelphians might have a consistent argument. But not in John 15:22!

1. In a most curious manner, Christadelphians use John 11:24-26 to prove that resurrection is something promised only to believers and use this verse to prove the ignorant "sinless" Gentiles and non-Christians will never be raised because they "do not believe". This argument would be valid (though still wrong) if Christadelphians taught that ONLY Christians are raised from the dead to eternal life. Yet Christadelphians openly teach that unfaithful Christians will also be raised, but not to eternal life, rather to eternal punishment. The key is that the verse promises two things based upon faith: Resurrection and life. They simply cannot be logically separated. So Christadelphians make mush of this verse:

1. Did you get all that from Jesus words? We sure didn't!
2. But even more amazing is the fact that Christadelphians must explain the very dilemma they create for Christians in the discussion of eternal conscious torment. They argue that Eternal life and immortality is something promised for believers and if the wicked spend eternity in hell then they too have eternal life and immortality yet they don't believe. We will answer that question with a question: "How come both resurrection and eternal life is promised to all believers but some believers will be raised but not get eternal life?" When Christadelphians answer that question, they will have the answer to their own question about whether eternal life is for those in hell.

1. Christadelphians use these two verses as proof that those who have never heard God's law or the light of the gospel, are not subject to resurrection. Yet the whole central theme of the book of Romans is that every man who has ever lived has sinned, whether Jew or Gentile. Why their very proof text of Rom 5:12 not once, but twice states that "ignorant gentiles" are accountable for sin. "because all sinned" v12 and "before the law sin is in the world". It just doesn't get any plainer than that! So although we have difficulty ascribing an sure and precise interpretation to the text, we can be sure the Christadelphian interpretation is wrong.
2. We believe the best interpretation among several possible ones, to be the following: What Paul is really saying is that if there was no law at all, of any kind given by God, then no man could be guilty of sin, because sin is a transgression of God's law. Yet obviously, since Paul just flat out stated that all men sinned and that sin reigned from Adam to Moses, there was a law. But the sin that resulted from breaking this law was not like Adam who disobeyed the voice of God or the Jews who violated the Law given through an intermediary like Moses. Rom 2:12 is helpful to confirm out interpretation, "For all who have sinned without the Law [of Moses, but still under a universal moral law] will also perish without the Law; and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law". In other words Paul flatly states that the Gentiles who were not under the law of Moses, still sinned. Obviously they were under some kind of law. Paul states that the Gentiles "not having the Law, are a law to themselves" Rom 2:14. So Paul's statement in Rom 5:13 actually affirms that all men are under some kind of law of God and are accountable. Otherwise his statement in the previous verse that "death spread to all men because all sinned" is nullified. So Paul's logic is the following:

1. To prove the point we use the case of Sodom and Gomorrah. They were very wicked, knew not God and were destroyed as an example of eternal fire. (Jude 7) By all Christadelphian standards, S & G would not be subject to resurrection. After all Christadelphians make a big deal about how Jude 7 proves hell is not eternal. So if S & G are examples of eternal fire, there is no circumstance we would expect them to be raised from the dead or be judged further. Yet Jesus said this: "Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrah in the day of judgment, than for that city." Mt 10:15 Notice the text says "it WILL BE more tolerable in the day of judgement" not "it WAS more tolerable for Sodom when they were judged 2000 BC, then it will be for you on the last day, when Christ will judge the world. Had Jesus said this, Christadelphians would cluck with glee! Even when you check all the parallels, they all clearly indicate the Sodom and Gomorrah will be judged at the last day. Only by reading into the text a meaning not centrally and obviously there, can Christadelphians change the verse to over come a major contradiction in their theology.

1. First we observe that the Psalmist states he has been "put in the lowest pit" (sheol). This is poetry and not literal. He is pleading with God that he is alive to praise God.
2. In v 10 we have the key text Christadelphians use to prove the ignorant/wicked Gentiles will not be raised from the dead. "Will the departed spirits rise?" Problem is the Psalmist makes no distinction, like Christadelphians do, as to who these "departed spirits" (raiphim) are!
3. The fact this is in the Psalm and the conflict appears to be "within Israel" proves their interpretation to be error.
4. Remember, Christadelphians believe that all covenant Jews will be raised. So again this verse must exclude all covenant Jews and apply only to Gentiles and babies. Nothing even remotely hints at this in the text of Ps 88 but once again Christadelphians must "read it into the text".

1. This verse is used by Christadelphians to prove that the wicked will never be raised from the dead on the last day.
2. The verse has nothing to do with any kind of resurrection.
3. The verse says that the wicked will die prematurely, or earlier than if they were righteous.
4. Notice that in verses 7 and 9, it is the living "eye which once saw him". This is obviously limited to before those who saw the wicked die themselves. To extend such to the last day or into eternity is just imagination.
5. The way Christadelphians read the verse, they almost think the text says, "After the righteous have themselves died and been raised from the dead, they will never again see the wicked, who will never be raised."
6. All the verse really says is that wicked triumph for a short time before they die and vanish off the earth forever.
7. At the second coming the earth will be destroyed (uncreated 2 Pe 3:10; Rev 20:11) so even at resurrection, they still never see the earth again!