Questions Pentecostals CANNOT answer!
If salvation is "solely by grace," why are not all people saved since "the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men" (Titus 2:11)?
Jn. 10:30 teaches that Jesus and the Father are one. But does this mean one person or a unity between persons? Does 1 Cor. 3:8 then mean that Paul and Apollos were one person? Does Eph. 5:31 mean that a husband and wife are one person? See also Gen. 11:6 and Jn. 17:21 for examples. Jn. 17:21 indicates that the "oneness" of the disciples was to be just like that between Jesus and the Father.
Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins," is there any reason to believe that any other cases of water baptism were practiced for any other reason (e.g., Acts 10:48, 19:5)? [If so, where are the scriptures that indicate it?]
Since Acts 8:36-38 teaches that baptism is by immersion (i.e., "down into water" ... "up out of the water"), is there any reason to believe that any other cases of water baptism were practiced in a different way (e.g., Acts 2:41, 10:48, 16:15,33)?
Since Acts 2:4-11 teaches that when men spoke in tongues (i.e., "as the Spirit gave the utterance"), they spoke actual, understandable human languages, why believe that any other cases of tongue speaking were in languages which could not be understood (e.g., Acts 10:46, 19:6, 1 Cor. 12-14)?
Since all examples of miracles in the NT were definitive and clearly visible signs, wonders and powers [review them all to verify this], why apply the word miracle (in the biblical sense) to things that clearly do not fit that description today? God acts in the affairs of men today, but if these actions qualified as NT miracles, they would be impossible to deny (Jn. 11:47-53, Acts 4:13-22).
Since the miracles in the NT were for the purpose of confirming the newly-revealed word (Mk. 16:20), what new revelation (i.e., not in the New Testament) is being confirmed by miracles today?
If we cannot understand the bible alike, how are we to understand the confusion being generated by everyone claiming to speak under the influence of the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 14:33)?
If someone receives the Holy Spirit when they are saved or at baptism, why did the Samaritans, who were saved, in Acts 8 not yet have the Holy Spirit?
Someone claiming to speak in tongues and heal, should also be able to drink deadly poison, be unaffected by the bites of poisonous snakes, and heal with 100% success.
1 Cor 13:8-13: Whether Paul intended it or not, one cannot walk away from this illustration, without thinking that God was telling the Corinthians that the spiritual gifts belonged to a "childhood" stage in the church. Hence, spiritual gifts are not a sign of "spiritual elitism", rather they infer that something is missing or not yet complete.
Why do people look over their soldier for the catcher, just before they are slain in the Spirit?
If tongues is so centrally important, why is the gift of tongues not again mentioned after Acts 19:6 and the book of first Corinthians?
Why are Pentecostal healing revivals FULL of genuinely and undisputedly crippled wheelchair-ridden people who NEVER GET HEALED???
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