Body: | Questions Pentecostals CANNOT answer!
If salvation is "solely by grace," why are not all people saved
since "the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men"
(Titus 2:11)?
Jn. 10:30 teaches that Jesus and the Father are one. But does this
mean one person or a unity between persons? Does 1 Cor. 3:8 then mean that
Paul and Apollos were one person? Does Eph. 5:31 mean that a husband and
wife are one person? See also Gen. 11:6 and Jn. 17:21 for examples. Jn.
17:21 indicates that the "oneness" of the disciples was to be just like
that between Jesus and the Father.
Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the
remission of sins," is there any reason to believe that any other cases of
water baptism were practiced for any other reason (e.g., Acts 10:48, 19:5)?
[If so, where are the scriptures that indicate it?]
Since Acts 8:36-38 teaches that baptism is by immersion (i.e., "down
into water" ... "up out of the water"), is there any reason to believe that
any other cases of water baptism were practiced in a different way (e.g.,
Acts 2:41, 10:48, 16:15,33)?
Since Acts 2:4-11 teaches that when men spoke in tongues (i.e., "as
the Spirit gave the utterance"), they spoke actual, understandable human
languages, why believe that any other cases of tongue speaking were in
languages which could not be understood (e.g., Acts 10:46, 19:6, 1 Cor.
12-14)?
Since all examples of miracles in the NT were definitive and clearly
visible signs, wonders and powers [review them all to verify this], why
apply the word miracle (in the biblical sense) to things that clearly do
not fit that description today? God acts in the affairs of men today, but
if these actions qualified as NT miracles, they would be impossible to deny
(Jn. 11:47-53, Acts 4:13-22).
Since the miracles in the NT were for the purpose of confirming the
newly-revealed word (Mk. 16:20), what new revelation (i.e., not in the New
Testament) is being confirmed by miracles today?
If we cannot understand the bible alike, how are we to understand
the confusion being generated by everyone claiming to speak under the
influence of the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 14:33)?
If someone receives the Holy Spirit when they are saved or at
baptism, why did the Samaritans, who were saved, in Acts 8 not yet have the
Holy Spirit?
Someone claiming to speak in tongues and heal, should also be able
to drink deadly poison, be unaffected by the bites of poisonous snakes, and
heal with 100% success.
1 Cor 13:8-13: Whether Paul intended it or not, one cannot walk away
from this illustration, without thinking that God was telling the
Corinthians that the spiritual gifts belonged to a "childhood" stage in the
church. Hence, spiritual gifts are not a sign of "spiritual elitism",
rather they infer that something is missing or not yet complete.
Why do people look over their soldier for the catcher, just before
they are slain in the Spirit?
If tongues is so centrally important, why is the gift of tongues not
again mentioned after Acts 19:6 and the book of first Corinthians?
Click to View Why are Pentecostal healing revivals FULL of genuinely
and undisputedly crippled wheelchair-ridden people who NEVER GET HEALED???
Click to View
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